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Saturday, 9 September 2017

IBPS CWE Clerk VII 2017 Notification – Apply 



Institute of Banking Personnel Selection (IBPS) has advertised a notification to conduct online examination (Preliminary and Main) for the next Common Recruitment Process (CRP) for selection of personnel for 7883 Clerical cadre Posts in the Participating Organisations is tentatively scheduled in December 2017 & January 2018. Eligible candidates can apply online from 12-09-2017 to 03-10-2017. Other details like age limit, educational qualification, selection process, application fee & how to apply are given below…
IBPS Vacancy Details:
Total No. of Posts: 7883
Name of the Post: Clerical Cadre (CWE Clerks -VII)
Name of the State:
1. Delhi: 272 Posts
2. Andhra Pradesh: 485 Posts
3. Arunachal Pradesh: 08 Posts
4. Assam: 109 Posts
5. Bihar: 227 Posts
6. Chandigarh: 34 Posts
7. Chhattisgarh: 118 Posts
8. Dadra & Nagar haveli: 07 Posts
9. Daman & Diu: 08 Posts
10. Goa: 41 Posts
11. Gujarat: 487 Posts
12. Haryana: 175 Posts
13. Himachal Pradesh: 73 Posts
14. Jammu & kashmir: 34 Posts
15. Jharkhand: 127 Posts
16. Karnataka: 554 Posts
17. Kerala: 217 Posts
18.Lakshadweep: 02 Posts
19. Madhya pradesh: 290 Posts
20. Maharashtra: 775 Posts
21. Manipur: 11 Posts
22. Meghalaya: 17 Posts
23. Mizoram: 03 Posts
24. Nagaland: 12 Posts
25. Odisha: 196 Posts
26. Puducherry: 46 Posts
27. Punjab: 401 Posts
28. Rajasthan: 344 Posts
29. Sikkim: 11 Posts
30. Tamil Nadu: 1277 Posts
31. Telangana: 344 Posts
32. Tripura: 18 Posts
33. Uttar Pradesh: 665 Posts
34. Uttrakhand: 78 Posts
35. West Bengal: 417 Posts
Age limit: Candidates age limit should be between 20 to 28 years as on 01-09-2017, i.e. a candidate must have been born not earlier than 02-09-1989 and not later than 01-09-1997 (both dates inclusive). Age Relaxation is 05 years for SC/ ST, 03 years for OBC and 10 years for PWD candidates admissible as per rules & other relaxation details refer the notification.
Educational Qualification: Candidate should possess Degree (Graduation) in any discipline from a University recognised by the Govt. Of India or any equivalent qualification recognized as such by the Central Government, have valid Mark-sheet/ Degree Certificate that he/ she is a graduateon the day he / she registers and indicate the percentage of marks obtained in Graduation while registering online, with Computer Literacy: Operating and working knowledge in computer systems is mandatory i.e. candidates should have Certificate/Diploma/Degree in computer operations/ Language/ should have studied Computer/ Information Technology as one of the subjects in the High School/ College/ Institute.
Selection Process: Candidates will be selected on the basis of Online Examination (Preliminary and Main).
Note: Proficiency in the Official Language of the State/ UT (candidates should know how to read/ write and speak the Official Language of the State/ UT) for which vacancies a candidate wishes to apply is preferable.
Application Fee: Applicants required to pay Rs.100/- for SC/ ST/ PWD/ EXSM candidates and Rs.600/- for all others through online by using Debit Cards (RuPay/ Visa/ Master Card/ Maestro), Credit Cards, Internet Banking, IMPS, Cash Cards/ Mobile Wallets. Bank Transaction charges for Online Payment of application fees/ intimation charges will have to be borne by the candidate.
How to Apply: Eligible and interested candidates can apply online through IBPS’s website www.ibps.in from 12-09-2017 to 03-10-2017.

ActivityTentative Dates
Starting Date for On-line registration including Edit/ Modification of Application by candidates12-09-2017
Last Date to On-line registration including Edit/ Modification of Application by candidates03-10-2017
Starting Date for Payment of Application Fees/
Intimation Charges (Online)
12-09-2017
Last Date to Payment of Application Fees/
Intimation Charges (Online)
03-10-2017
Download of call letters for Pre- Exam TrainingNovember 2017
Conduct of Pre-Exam Training13-11-017 to 18-11-2017
Date for Download of call letters for Online examination —
Preliminary
November 2017
Date of Online Examination — Preliminary02-12-2017, 03-12-2017,
09-12-2017 & 10-12-2017
Date for Result of Online exam — PreliminaryDecember 2017
Date for Download of Call letter for Online exam — MainJanuary 2018
Date for Online Examination — Main21-01-2018
Provisional AllotmentApril 2018

Thursday, 7 September 2017

SSC CGL Tier I 2017 Answer Key DECLARED...
The Staff Selection Commission (SSC) has declared the Combined Graduate Level (CGL) Tier I examination 2017 answer keys on their official website today on September 7, 2017. Candidates who were eager to know how they have performed in the SSC CGL Tier I examination would be able to analyse their performance by downloading the answer key and compare it with their answers.

Almost 20 lakh candidates took the SSC CGL Tier I examination in 2017 of which around 10% would qualify for the SSC CGL Tier II examination to be conducted on November 10 and 11, 2017.
Candidates will be interested to know how they stand after the examination and count the marks they can expect after SSC CGL Tier I examination after comparing their answers with the official answer keys released by SSC.
How to Download SSC CGL Tier I 2017 Answer Keys
Candidates need to visit the official website of SSC.
On the homepage, candidates would have to click on the Answer Key button at the top.
Clicking the button will lead to a page where the candidates need to choose the active link of ‘SSC CGL Tier I 2017 tentative answer keys’
Candidates will be able to download the answer keys of the specific day and code of their examination paper from the website by providing their roll number and password.
Candidates need to provide their examination date as well before submitting.
Candidates can take a print out of the PDF file and compare their performance with that of the answer keys published by SSC.
.Link for tentative answer key for Combined Graduate Level Examination (Tier-I), 2017 http://164.100.129.99/challengesystem/index.jsp....

Saturday, 5 August 2017

QUESTIONS ASKED IN SSC CGL 2017(PRE) : 5th AUG 1ST SHIFT(MEMORY BASED)


GK QUESTION

1. SI unit of work?
Ans.joule


2.Which is Cation?
Ans. Positively Charge Ion

3. Dynasty came after Tugalak? 
Ans. Sayed Dynasty 

4. Rusting is ______ process 
Ans.oxidation

5. SI unit of force?
Ans.newton

6. How many members are nominated by President in Lok Shabha?
Ans.2

7.Minimum Age of vice President for Selection? 
Ans.35

8.One question was asked related to name of the famous Book. 

9.One question related to Awards?

10. Match the following artists with music instrument 
Flute-Hari Prasad Chaurasia

11.Who was the Winner of 2016 Man Booker Prize?
Ans.Sellout

12. Who received polly umrigar Award in 2011-12?
Ans.Virat Kohli

13. Recently USA made which country as Major defence Partner?
Ans.India

14.2016 EKUVERIN” the joint military exercise has started between India and which country?
Ans.Maldives

15.What is quo warranto?
Ans.. Quo warranto is used to test a person’s legal right to hold an office, not to evaluate the person’s performance in the office

16. Son of Chandragupta Maurya ? 
Ans.Bindusar 

17.Which of the following does not form smoke? 

18. Movement along supply curve?

19. Where is the temple of Patal Bhairav Temple?
Ans.Ujjain

20.which commission is replaced Niti Ayog ?
Ans.Planning Commission

21.The rate at which Reserve Bank of India borrows money from commercial banks within the country. It is called?
Ans.Reverse Repo rate

22.Who was the Inventor of Laser Printer?
Ans.Garry Starkweather

23. Duncan Passage is a strait in? 
Ans.Indian Ocean

24. Snake is from which group? 

25.What is the Unit of Pressure?
Ans.Pascal

ENGLISH QUESTION


Q1. Find the Synonym for the following question? 
Opulent
(a) Sparse
(b) Ascetic 
(c) Grandiose
(d) Penurious

S1. Ans.(c) 
Sol.  opulent: ostentatiously costly and luxurious.

Q2. Find the Synonym for the following question? 
Grotesque
(a) Ordinary 
(b) Normal
(c) Fabulous
(d) Distorted

S2. Ans.(d) 
Sol.  grotesque: comically or repulsively ugly or distorted.

Q3. Find the Antonym for the following question?
Irk
(a) Genial
(b) Exasperate
(c) Vex
(d) Pique 

S3. Ans.(a) 
Sol.  irk: irritate; annoy, genial-friendly and cheerful.

Q4. Find the Antonym for the following question?
Apex
(a) Base 
(b) Zenith 
(c) Meridian 
(d) Median 

S4. Ans.(a) 
Sol.  Apex-the top or highest part of something, especially one forming a point.

Q5. Find the Correctly Spelt word?  
(a) Neeice
(b) Neice 
(c) Niece
(d) Niecie

S5. Ans.(c) 
Sol.  ‘Niece’ is correct spelling. 

Q6. Find the Correctly Spelt word? 
(a) Dectionary 
(b) Dictioenery 
(c) Dictionery 
(d) Dictionary

S6. Ans.(d) 
Sol.  ‘Dictionary’ is correct spelling. 

Directions (7-9): Some parts of the sentences have error and some are correct. Find out which part of a sentence has an error.

Q7. If I am you I would not have behaved like that.
(a) If I am you
(b) I would not have behaved
(c) like that.
(d) No error

S7. Ans.(a) 
Sol. Write ‘had been’ in place of ‘am’.

Q8. He made me to do all the work.
(a) He made me
(b) to do
(c) all the work.
(d) No error

S8. Ans.(b) 
Sol. Write ‘do’ in place of ‘to do’. Infinitive ‘to’ is not used with the verb ‘make’.

Q9. Neither of them were able to complete the work.
(a) Neither of them
(b) were able to
(c) complete the work.
(d) No error

S9. Ans.(b) 
Sol. Write ‘was’ in place of ‘were’.

Q10.A person who is made to bear the blame due to others. 
(a) Omnipresent      
(b) Anonymous              
(c) Scapegoat               
(d) Epilogue

S10. Ans.(c) 
Sol.  scapegoat: a person who is blamed for the wrongdoings, mistakes, or faults of others, especially for reasons of expediency.

Q11.That which cannot be corrected.
(a) Inevitable              
(b) Incorrigible               
(c) Invincible                    
(d) None of these

S11. Ans.(b) 
Sol.  incorrigible: (of a person or their behaviour) not able to be changed or reformed.

Q12. Short speech a poem given at the end of a play or book 
(a) epilogue 
(b) preface 
(c) debut 
(d) climax 

S12. Ans.(a)
Sol. epilogue: a section or speech at the end of a book or play that serves as a comment on or a conclusion to what has happened.

Directions (13-17): In the following passage, some of the words have been left out. First read the passage over and try to understand what it is about. Then fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Mark your answer in the Answer Sheet.

Since you have never had to (13) me for anything, perhaps you wouldn’t be (14) sticking (15) me now that I have run (16) debt, and (17) these people that it is in no way a Reflection on my character.

Q13.
(a) Appreciate  
(b) Reproach
(c) Assert
(d) Pester

S13. Ans.(b) 
Sol. Reproach- express to (someone) one's disapproval of or disappointment in their actions.

Q14.
(a) Averse to
(b) Deprived of
(c) Indifferent to
(d) Desirous of

S14. Ans.(a) 
Sol. Averse to- having a strong dislike of or opposition to something.

Q15.
(a) At
(b) On
(c) For
(d) To

S15. Ans.(d) 
Sol. Preposition ‘to’ is correct.  

Q16.
(a) In
(b) Into
(c) With
(d) On

S16. Ans.(b) 
Sol. Preposition ‘into’ is correct.  

Q17.
(a) Alluding
(b) Making
(c) Convincing
(d) Informing

S17. Ans.(c) 
Sol. Convincing- is correct choice.

Q18.What is the meaning of the idiom "teething problems"? 
(a) Something that is of less value 
(b) problems in society
(c) problems that you experience in the early stages of an activity
(d) teeth problems 

S18. Ans.(c) 
Sol.  teething troubles: short-term problems that occur in the early stages of a new project.

Q19. What is the meaning of the idiom "To keep the wolf away from the door"?
(a) To keep away from extreme poverty 
(b) To keep off an unwanted and undesirable person 
(c) To keep alive 
(d) To hold the difficulties and dangers in check 

S19. Ans.(a) 
Sol.  keep the wolf from the door: to maintain oneself at a minimal level; to keep from starving, freezing.

Q20. What is the meaning of the idiom "To keep the ball rolling"?
(a) To earn more and more 
(b) To work constantly 
(c) To maintain the progress of a project, plan, etc. 
(d) To make the best use of 

S20. Ans.(c) 
Sol.  keep the ball rolling: to cause something that is in progress to continue.

Q21. He has seen many ups and downs in life but he has never been as much dejectedas he is today.
(a) that much dejected
(b) so much in dejection
(c) so dejected
(d) No improvement

S21. Ans.(c) 
Sol. so dejected. So-as is correlative conjunction and used in pairs.

Q22. Socrates had many disciples and the most great of them was Plato.
(a) the greater
(b) the greatest
(c) greatest
(d) No improvement

S22. Ans.(b) 
Sol. the greatest- article ‘the’ is used with superlative degree.

Q23. Neither the judge nor I am ready to announce who is the winner.
(a) am ready to announce who the winner is
(b) are ready to announce who the winner is
(c) is ready to announce who is the winner
(d) No improvement

S23. Ans.(a) 
Sol. “am ready to announce who the winner is”. In statement form of the sentence, we use verb after the subject.

Directions (24-25): The sentences given in each question, which properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labeled with a letter. Choose the most logical order of sentences from among the given choices to construct a coherent paragraph.
Q24.
A. In 2010-11, the studies conducted showed that the growth of exports from the various Indian states was robust.
B. In the first half of 2011-12 there was robust export growth in case of Karnataka, Uttar Pradesh, and Time Nadu.
C. The data on state of origin of exports of goods showed that the two States, namely Gujarat and Maharashtra, accounted for 46 percent of exports from India.
D. Only Goa and negative export growth due to fall in ore exports owing to a ban on exports of iron ore by the Karnataka government
(a) ABCD
(b) CDBA
(c) ACBD
(d) BCDA

S24. Ans.(d) 
Sol. The logical and correct order of the sentences of the given paragraph should be- BCDA.

Q25.
 A. Widely published tables of income levels of all countries indicate that when incomes are higher, the greater is the contribution made by the manufacturing industry.
B. Countries that have little or no industry are almost invariable poor.
C. The lesson is clear, to overcome poverty and backwardness, a country must become industrialized.
D. Industrialization is seen as the key to growth and a prerequisite for development.
(a) CBAD
(b) DCBA
(c) DABC 
(d) CABD

S25. Ans.(c) 
Sol.  The logical and correct order of the sentences of the given paragraph should be- DABC

Reasoning Questions

Directions(1-4): For each of the following questions there is some relationship between the two terms to the left of :: and there is same relationship between the two terms to its right. In each of these questions the fourth term is missing. This term is one of the alternatives among the five terms given below. Find out this term.

Q1. QYGO : SAIQ : : UCKS : ?
(a) WEMV 
(b) WFNU 
(c) WENU 
(d) WEMU
Ans.(d)
Sol. There is a gap of one letter between each corresponding
letters of 'QYGO' and 'SAIQ'

Q2. 6 : 43 : : 5 : ?
(a) 63 
(b) 52 
(c) 26
(d) 31
Ans.(d)
Sol.  6² + 7 = 36 + 7 = 43
Similarly
5² + 6 = 25 + 6 = 31

Q3. 42 : 56 : : ? : 132
(a) 100
(b) 110 
(c) 120
(d) 130 
Ans.(b)
Sol.  First term = (6)² + 6= 42
Second term = (7)² + 7 = 56
Similarly
Fourth term = (11)² + 11 = 132
Third term = (10)² + 10 = 110

Q4. 68 : 130 : : 222 : ?
(a)310
(b) 316
(c) 350
(d) 245
Ans.(c)
Sol.


Q5. Find the odd word from the given alternatives.
(a) Shimla
(b) Ooty
(c) Darjeeling
(d) Agra
Ans.(d)
Sol. Except Agra all are hill stations.

Q6. Select the odd letters from the given alternatives.
(a)  BGF
(b)  FDH
(c)  BAE
(d)  CDE
Ans.(d)
Sol. Only CDE contains letters in alphabetical order.

Q7. Select the odd number from the given alternatives.
(a)  2197
(b)  3375
(c)  4099
(d) 2744
Ans.(c)
Sol. Except 4099 all are cubes.

Q8. Ravi walked 40 metres towards West, took a left turn and walked 30 metres. He then took a right turn and walked 20 metres, He again took a right turn and walked 30 metres. How far was he from the starting point?
(a) 60 metres 
(b) 80 metres
(c) 70 metres 
(d) Cannot be determined
Ans.(a)
Sol.


Q9. In this question, a word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as in the two given matrices. The columns and rows of Matrix I are numbered from 0 to 4 and those of Matrix II from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and then the column number.
You have to identify the correct set for the word “STAY”  

(a) 02, 87, 12, 44
(b) 34, 87, 87, 98
(c) 43, 30, 12, 98
(d) 34, 87, 12, 98
Ans.(d)
Sol. 
‘S’ = 02, 11, 20, 34, 43
‘T’ = 55, 69, 78, 87, 96
‘A’ = 03, 12, 21, 30, 44
‘Y’ = 57, 66, 75, 89, 98

Q10. A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.
122, 197, 290, ?
(a) 399
(b)  400
(c) 401
(d) 402
Ans.(c)
Sol. 11² + 1 = 122 , 11+3 = 14
14² + 1 = 197, 14+3 =17 
17² + 1 = 290,  17+3= 20
20² + 1 = 401

Q11. A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.
Padma Shri, Padma Bhushan, Padma Vibhushan, ?
(a) Bharat Ratna
(b)  Ashok Chakra
(c)  Sahitya Akademi Award
(d)  Arjuna Award
Ans.(a)
Sol. Missing term is Bharat Ratna because awards are arranged in ascending order. Bharat Ratna is the biggest award.

Q12. A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.
C A E, F D H, I G K, ?
(a)  L J N
(b) O M Q
(c)  K L M
(d) P O N
Ans.(a)
Sol. 


Q13. A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.
AY, CW, EU, ?
(a)  GS
(b)  HS
(c) GR
(d)  JT
Ans.(a)
Sol. 
  

Q14. Which of the following alternatives will complete the sequence?
a__ c __abb__a __bc__bc__ab
(a) cbcaaa
(b) bcccab
(c) bccaac
(d) acbabc
Ans.(c)
Sol. The series is abccab/bcaabc/abccab
Thus, the pattern abccab/bcaabc is repeated. 

Directions(15-16): In each of the following questions, find the odd word/number from the given alternatives.

Q15. 
(a) Pound (Sterling) 
(b) Deutsche Mark 
(c) Yen 
(d) Franc 
Ans.(c)
Sol. Yen is the currency of Japan, an Asian country. Pound (Sterling), Deutsche Mark and Franc are currencies of European countries.

Q16. 27, 125, 216, 343
(a) 27
(b) 125
(c) 216
(d) 343
Ans.(c)
Sol. 27 = 3 × 3 × 3 
125 = 5 × 5 × 5 
216 = 6 × 6 × 6 
343 = 7 × 7 × 7 
The number 216 is a prefect cube of an even number. 

Q17. In this question below are given three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to take the given three statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read the conclusion and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the three given statements ,disregarding commonly known facts. 
Statements:
No table is fruit.
No fruit is window.
All windows are chairs.
Conclusions:
I. No window is table.
II. No chair is fruit.
III. No chair is table.
IV. All chairs are windows. 
(a) None follows 
(b) Only I and II follow 
(c) Only III and IV follow 
(d) All follows
Ans.(a)
Sol.

From the Venn diagram we can clearly see that no conclusion follows.

Q18. In the following series, how many ‘8’ are there which are not preceded by ‘7’ and followed by ‘9’
7, 8, 9, 9, 8, 5, 4, 3, 8, 9, 5, 8, 9, 8, 7, 7, 8, 9 
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three 
(d) Four 
Ans.(d)
Sol. 7, 8, 9, 9, 8, 5, 4, 3, 8, 95, 8, 9, 8, 7, 7, 8, 9


Q19. Pointing to a boy, Pooja said, "He is the son of my paternal grandfather's only daughter." How is Pooja related to the boy?
(a) Mother 
(b) Maternal Aunt
(c) Paternal Aunt 
(d) None of these
Ans.(d)
Sol.  Boy = son of Pooja's grandfather's only daughter
= son of Pooja's paternal aunt
= Pooja's cousin
Hence, Pooja is also the boy's cousin.

Q20. How many triangles are there in the given figure?
(a) 15 or more 
(b) 12
(c) 14
(d) 10
Ans.(a)
Sol. Number of triangles = 15

Directions (21): The letter group this question is to be codified as per the following number codes: 
Letters
L
T
P
M
R
D
H
F
K
V
Number codes
3
0
4
9
2
1
5
7
6
8
You have to find out which of the alternatives (a), (b), (c) or (d) has the correct coded form of the given letter-group. If none is correct mark (d) as your answer.

Q21. MDFHLTR 
(a) 9175320
(b) 9175230
(c) 9137502
(d) None of these 
Ans.(d)
Sol. 9175302  

Q22. If the letters in PRABA are coded as 27595 and THILAK are coded as 368451, how can BHARATI be coded?  
(a) 9567568
(b) 9675538
(c) 9657538
(d) 9567538
Ans.(c)
Sol. 
Letter
P
R
A
B
T
H
I
L
K
Code
2
7
5
9
3
6
8
4
1

Q23. If a mirror is placed on the line MN, then which of the answer figures is the right image of the given figure?

Ans.(b)

Q24. A piece of paper is folded and cut as shown below in the question figures. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened.

Ans.(d)

Q25. From the given answer figures, select the one in which the question figure is hidden/embedded.
 
Ans.(d)


QUANT QUESTION

Q1. Sum of the CP’s of two cars is Rs. 1,00,000. 1st car is sold at a profit of 20% and 2nd car is sold at a loss of 20%. However, their SPs are same. What is the CP of 1st car?
(a) Rs. 40,000
(b) Rs. 60,000
(c) Rs. 52,400
(d) Rs. 47,600

S1. Ans.(a)
Sol.


Q2. The cost of production of a cordless phone set in 2006 is Rs. 900, divided between material, labour and overheads in the ratio 3 : 4 : 2. If the cordless phone set is marked at a price that gives a 20% profit on the component of price accounted for by labour, what is the marked price of the set?
(a) Rs. 980
(b) Rs. 1080
(c) Rs. 960
(d) Rs. 1020


Q3. A firm dealing in furniture allows 4% discount on the marked price of each item. What price must be marked on a dining table that cost Rs. 400 to assemble, so as to make a profit of 20%?
(a) Rs. 475
(b) Rs. 480
(c) Rs. 500
(d) Rs. 520


Q4. A reduction of 10% in the price of sugar enables a housewife to buy 6.2 kg more for Rs. 279. Find the reduced price per kilogram
(a) Rs. 5
(b) Rs. 4.5
(c) Rs. 4.05
(d) None of these


Q5.The difference between principal and Interest for 15 years at the rate of 15% at SI is given Rs250.Find the Principal.















Q12. A and B together can do a piece of work in 12 days which B and C together can do in 16 days. After A has been working at it for 5 days and B for 7 days, C finishes it in 13 days. In how many days B could finish the work?
(a) 48 days
(b) 24 days
(c) 16 days
(d) 12 days


Q13. A can write 75 pages in 25 hrs. A and B together can write 135 pages in 27 hrs. In what time can B write 48 pages?
(a) 17 hrs.
(b) 19 hrs.
(c) 24 hrs.
(d) 23 hrs.


Q14. O and C are respectively the orthocenter and Circumcircle of an acute-angled triangle PQR. The points P and O are joined and produced to meet the side QR at S. If PQS = 60° and QCR = 130°, then RPS =
(a) 30°
(b) 35°
(c) 100°
(d) 60°


Q15. AB is a chord to a circle and PAT is the tangent to the circle at A. If BAT = 75°and BAC = 45°. C being a point on the circle on other side of T, then ABC is equal to:
(a) 40°
(b) 45°
(c) 60°
(d) 70°


Q16. A boat covers 24 km upstream and 36 km downstream in 6 hours, while it covers 36 km upstream and 24 km down–stream in 6.5 hours. The speed of the current is
(a) 1 km/hr
(b) 2 km/hr
(c) 1.5 km/hr
(d) 2.5 km/hr


Q17. Fresh fruit contains 68% water and dry fruit contains 20% water. How much dry fruit can be obtained from 100 kgs of fresh fruits?
(a) 32 kgs.
(b) 40 kgs.
(c) 52 kgs.
(d) 80 kgs.

S17. Ans.(b)
Sol.

Q18. The average of 8 numbers is 20. The average of first two numbers is 15.5 and the average of next three number is 21⅓. If the 6th number is 4 and 7 less by the 7th and the 8th number respectively then what will be the 7th number?
(a) 25
(b) 22
(c) 35
(d) 30


Q19. A man sells a plot of land at 6% profit. If he had sold it at 10% profit, he would have received Rs. 200 more. What is the selling price of the land?
(a) Rs. 5000
(b) Rs. 5300
(c) Rs. 4800
(d) Rs. 5500




Directions (21-25): The following questions are based on the pie-chart given below. Study the pie-chart and answer the questions.




Q22. If the ‘Printing-Cost’ is Rs. 17500, the royalty paid is
(a) Rs. 8750
(b) Rs. 7500
(c) Rs. 3150
(d) Rs. 6300


Q23. If the “miscellaneous expenses” are Rs.6000. How much more are “binding and cutting charges” than “Royalty”?
(a) Rs. 6000
(b) Rs. 5500
(c) Rs. 4500
(d) Rs. 10500

 

Q24. The central angle corresponding to the sector on “Printing Cost” is more than that of “Advertisement Charges” by:
(a) 72°
(b) 61.2°
(c) 60°
(d) 54.8°

S24. Ans.(b)
Sol. Difference in percent expenses on printing cost and advertisement charges
= 35 – 18 = 17
Now, 1% = 3.6°
 17% = 3.6° × 17 = 61.2° 

Q25. The “Paper Cost” is approximately what percent of “Printing Cost”?
(a) 20.3%
(b) 28.6%
(c) 30%
(d) 32.5%